THE REBUKER guy got stressed out. LOL! But let's just answer his cry to help him understand the scriptures. But before that, here is the text from his own Post below -
 |
| This is actually a new Post that he wanted to discuss But it was already answered. (Check out the former article about this topic. Click here) Let's break down some of this in this blog post. |
So, yeah, sure. He still sticks his nose to that scripture, which is John 17:1-3, and I don't know what he is up to; I don't even know if he understood my article the last time, or maybe I'll use Tagalog words to help him understand it. But yeah, we can do that here sometimes, hirap din naman kasi pag English, LOL!
The thing that bothered me about, was his main question, which says, "ilan ang tinutukoy ng salitang 'IKAW LANG?" I'm not sure how he understood Christ's word during his "Intercessory Prayer". This may be a common misunderstanding of INC doctrine. They think Christ was just a normal man because he prays to God the Father. And may have misunderstood that Christ experienced pain, and sometimes he felt like giving up his mission. But this doesn't sound like it. We do understand Christ at this point; he was yet a human, no question about it, but this doesn't mean that he isn't divine. Christ was born with only a human Mother; this alone is a mystery. Christ would never name anyone father biologically in his time, because his Father was not a human. Was it complicated or hard to accept and understand his divinity and divine mission? Or, you just simply can't accept it because your ministers tolds you so? He does need a human body to fulfil his mission, but that doesn't mean he is not a God or a divine being.
Another thing, Christ addresses his Father as the only True God. Why did Christ still need to state that if it is already given? God the Father was already the One True God of Israel, and everyone knows that; they may have different interpretations or understandings of His nature, yet it doesn't need to repeat addressing His state of being since Christ and the World already know it. So, what was Christ trying to implement for? What was he trying to prove? Does he mean there were other gods and only you are the True one? That might contradict your ideology as well. Christ simply honors his Father as the supreme, and Christ's nature as a human at that point all depends on his Father in Heaven. And yet THE REBUKER guys seem to misunderstand the Christ "High Priestly Prayer" to perform the atonement by just stating he was just a man. Come on! Christ was still alive in a human body at this point, which was indeed not yet a glorified immortal body. But guess what, 1 Timothy 6:14-16 says about Christ? It was part of my first Commentary for you that you avoided reading. Why?
"IKAW LANG" You're too fucos on just a word play. Okay, So when the Scripture says that Christ was the "Only Begotten Son", does that mean everyone who made a covenants, obeys, and love God was not a begotten son or daughter of God? What will happens then to your scriptures if you only understand a selected few lines but not the entire text?
Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: and every one that loveth him that begat loveth him also that is begotten of him.We know that whosoever is born of God sinneth not; but he that is begotten of God keepeth himself, and that wicked one toucheth him not. - 1 John. 5:1,18
Another thing on that same John 17, how could a mere man simply state that everything he has that belongs to the Father also belongs to him? Why would a "human-only-not-God" say such a thing as plain as it was that something he could easily declare as his? Did you even think about it THE REBUKER?
And all mine are thine, and thine are mine; and I am glorified in them. - John 17:10
There are other things that I share on this topic which I already compile on this link below, check it out and it's for you THE REBUKER and please, read the verses and don't just stick to just one note that doesn't lead you to the truth. Your cherry-picking doesn't work.
And by the way, The scripture said also that Christ was endeed one of the Godhead, and that they are One, so if you try to use that question, try also to consider what were the language of the scripture they are using. Here are some of the Examples -
Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost: - Matthew 28:19
Take note on the word "name", they weren't use separately or it was used as singular. Which basically means they were the same being and holds the same Title. And lastly, the word "Elohim" is a Hebrew word that was commonly used in the Old Testament. A plural noun but it's often used in a singular sense when referring to the God of Israel. We as the Latter-day Saints normally referres it to a name of God as the Father. Christ on the other hand states his identity as one with the Father -
"My Father, which gave them me, is greater than all; and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father’s hand.I and my Father are one.Then the Jews took up stones again to stone him. - John 10:29-31"
My suggestion to you THE REBUKER is simple. If you don't know how the scripture was written, don't use a question that you thinks will simply leads you in to trouble. Thank you and have a nice day.
 |
| The version of Scripture that he used in his post. |
